See the 2026 BECE English Language Marking Scheme: Download here

While the marking of the 2026 BECE papers is going on, teachers, schools, and candidates can now download the 2026 BECE English Language Marking Scheme.

The available marking scheme for the English paper covers the entire paper two of the subject. The marking scheme covers English Composition, English Comprehension, and Literature.

Teachers will find this BECE English Language Marking Scheme useful because it can be used along with the question paper as a key revision resource and for preparing the next batch of candidates for the BECE.

Students who sat the examination will also find it super useful to tell if they will do well in the paper. If a student can vividly remember the answers he or she provided for the respective questions answered, that will be an excellent self-marking.

READ: See 2026 BECE Computing Marking Scheme (Final Copy Released)

THE WEST AFRICAN EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL, ACCRA

BASIC EDUCATION CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION FOR SCHOOL AND PRIVATE CANDIDATES
MAY, 2026
ENGLISH 2
FINAL MARKING SCHEME

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2 — PROVISIONAL MARKING SCHEME

PREAMBLE

1. There are three parts—A, B and C. Candidates are expected to answer three questions in all, ONE question from part A and Questions 4 & 5. If a candidate attempts more than one question from Part A, mark both and choose the better of the two.
2. The minimum length of each composition should be 250 words.
3. Mark Allocation: Each composition is to be marked out of a total of 30 marks distributed as follows:
   • CONTENT: 10 marks
   • ORGANISATION: 5 marks
   • EXPRESSION: 10 marks
   • MECHANICAL ACCURACY: 5 marks
4. If a candidate writes on a topic other than the ones set, award 0 for Content and mark Expression out of 5. The mark allocations for Organization and Mechanical Accuracy remain unchanged.

   NB: The script of a candidate who writes on a topic other than the ones set should be referred to the Team leader or the Chief Examiner.

5. Each ring should attract a deduction of half a mark (1/2). Formal features of a letter should have two rings only counted against the marks for Mechanical Accuracy. Subsequent errors in the formal features should be underlined only.
6. The candidate is expected to know the basic rules of English Language. These include concord: subject-verb, noun-pronoun agreement, etc.; the proper use of letters (capital / small) and correct spelling of words. The candidate should also be able to use determiners and prepositions correctly and be capable of constructing sentences with all their vital components.
7. PENALIZE:

1. • (i) each grammatical error.
   • (ii) wrong spelling – the wrong spelling of the same word should be penalized only once.
   • (iii) faulty construction.
   • (iv) punctuation error and the wrong use of the capital or small letter.
   • (v) the pronoun ‘I’ if written as a small letter (i).
2. Each of these errors should be ringed and half a mark (1/2) deducted up to a total of 5 marks.

9. ASSESSMENT GUIDE

Number of Words Estimation Guide

• 5 words on a line = 50 lines
• 6 words on a line = 42 lines
• 7 words on a line = 36 lines
• 8 words on a line = 31 lines
• 9 words on a line = 28 lines
• 10 words on a line = 25 lines
• 11 words on a line = 23 lines
• 12 words on a line = 21 lines
• 13 words on a line = 19 lines

Word Count vs. Mechanical Accuracy Marks

• 250 words = 5 marks
• 225 words = 4 ½ marks
• 200 words = 4 marks
• 175 words = 3 ½ marks
• 150 words = 3 marks
• 125 words = 2 ½ marks
• 100 words = 2 marks
• 75 words = 1 ½ marks
• 50 words = 1 mark
• 25 words = ½ mark

PART A — COMPOSITION (30 Marks)

QUESTION 1

You are not allowed to watch television after seven o’clock in the evening, but your favourite programme is shown at that time. Write a letter to your father asking for an extension of the time and give two benefits you will gain from the programme.

• CONTENT (10 marks): The candidate should clearly state the programme and explain two points of importance or benefits (educative, informative, entertaining etc.) he/she will derive. Award not less than 6 marks if this is well done. If a candidate merely mentions the programme, award not more than 3 marks. The reasons should be convincing, otherwise award not more than 2 marks.
• ORGANISATION (5 marks): The following features of an informal letter are expected:
  • i. Writer’s address
  • ii. Date
  • iii. Salutation (Dear Father/Dad/ Dada/ Daddy)
  • iv. Subscription (Your son/daughter/ Yours sincerely/ Yours affectionately, etc)
  • v. Writer’s first name

  The paragraphs should be well developed and linked to ensure cohesion.

• EXPRESSION (10 marks): This is a letter to a parent; therefore, the language should be polite and reflect the warmth of a close relationship between the candidate and his/her father. The use of appropriate register and a good blend of varied sentence patterns are expected. Contracted forms are acceptable.
• MECHANICAL ACCURACY (5 marks): Ring all errors in concord (subject-verb, noun-pronoun), tense, determiners, prepositions and punctuations whenever they occur. Ring the wrong spelling of the same word once. Subsequently, underline them. Each sentence and proper noun should begin with a capital letter. Ring the use of “i” instead of “I” for the first-person pronoun.

QUESTION 2

Your school has qualified for the 2026 National Debate Competition. As the main speaker of your school’s debate team, write your speech for or against the motion, “The Basic Education Certificate Examination should be abolished.”

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• CONTENT (10 marks): The candidate is expected to take a stand, that is whether the Basic Education Certificate Examination should be abolished or not, and defend it with at least two points, well discussed and illustrated. Award 6 marks and above if this is well done. If a candidate does not take a stand, mark content out of 5 marks. Where a candidate discusses only one point, mark content out of 5 marks.
• ORGANISATION (5 marks): The use of vocatives is mandatory. E.g. Mr. Chairman, Panel of Judges, Co-debaters, Ladies and Gentlemen. The paragraphs should be full and effectively linked. A good introduction and an appropriate conclusion are expected.
• EXPRESSION (10 marks): The language should be formal and persuasive. Clarity of expression and correct register are expected. The correct use of speech techniques should attract a good mark of 6 and above. Varied sentence patterns and contracted forms are expected.
• MECHANICAL ACCURACY (5 marks): Refer to Question 1.

QUESTION 3

Your best vacation was when you visited a friend in another part of the country. Describe two differences you noticed between his/her community and yours.

• CONTENT (10 marks): The candidate could give a vivid account of the visit and comment on the two differences he/she observed. Award 6 marks or more if this is done well. Mark content out of 5 marks if the candidate describes only one difference.
• ORGANISATION (5 marks): The essay may have a title/ heading. The paragraphs should be well developed and there should be inter and intra-paragraph cohesion.
• EXPRESSION (10 marks): This is a descriptive essay. The language must paint mental images of the candidate’s experience. There should be a good blend of long and short sentences.
• MECHANICAL ACCURACY (5 marks): Refer to Question 1.

PART B — READING & COMPREHENSION (20 Marks)

PENALTIES FOR QUESTION 4

• a. Deduct half a mark (½) for any grammatical/expression error (s) at each scoring point.
• b. Where a candidate gives two answers to a question and one of them is wrong, award zero. If, however, both answers are correct, award full marks.
• c. Where words/expressions are expected to be given to replace words/expressions in the passage, they must fit in perfectly. Otherwise, award zero.
• d. Answers need not be written in sentences, unless otherwise stipulated.
• e. An answer, taken as a whole, must make sense before any part of it is accepted for scoring.
• Question 4e Rules:
  • f. i. Award zero (0) if any content/ main word in the expression being tested is repeated in the candidate’s answer.
  • f. ii. Award zero (0) if a candidate uses fixed expressions (idioms, phrasal verbs … etc) in the candidate’s answer.
• Question 4g (Summary) Rules:
  • i. Award half the allocated mark if the answer is not written in a complete sentence.
  • ii. Apt lifting within the stipulated number of words is allowed.
  • iii. Deduct ½ if an answer exceeds the required number of words (extraneous material). (After 12 words the rest becomes extraneous).
  • iv. Deduct ½ for any grammatical/expression error in a correct answer.
  • v. Deduct ½ for any extraneous material in a correct answer.

Question 4 Marking Guide & Answers

a) According to the older generation, what could be the effect of the mode of dressing of the young females?
Answer: Their mode of dressing could lead them into trouble. [1 mark]

b) How do the younger ones tease their elders?
Answer: They tease their elders by referring to the hairstyles and clothes in their albums.
Or They tease their elders by referring to the hairstyles in their albums.
Or They tease their elders by referring to the clothes in their albums.
(Deduct half a mark (½) if “… in their albums” is omitted). [1 mark]

c) In what two ways do the younger ones defend themselves against what the older ones say against them?
Answer:
i. They say that the days of the older ones are past and gone. [1 mark]
ii. They say that the older ones are not being fair to them. [1 mark]

d) “the difference…. will always be there” — i. What does this mean for the future?
Answer: It means this debate is not stopping now/ this debate can never end/ the argument will always be there. [2 marks]

e) Explain in your own words the following expressions as used in the passage:

• i. The mode of dressing: the way they dress; how they wear clothes [2 marks]
• ii. Obvious reasons: explanations clear to everybody; explanations which are clear to all / well-known explanations/expected explanations. [2 marks]
• iii. All said and done: in the final analysis; after all the arguments; on the whole; in the end/ in conclusion/finally / ultimately [2 marks]

f) For each of the following words, give another word or phrase that means the same and can fit into the passage:

• i. appalling: disgusting; horrible; terrible; nauseating; very bad; despicable; shameless [1 mark]
• ii. expose: lay bare; reveal; display; show [1 mark]
• iii. vital: important; valued; essential; delicate; private [1 mark]
• iv. snub: treat with contempt; belittle; disparage; ignore; brush aside; consider as worthless; look down upon; reject; shun; disregard [1 mark]

g) In two sentences of not more than eight words each, summarize the accusations against the younger generation.
Answer:
1) Young ones/The Latter generation live carefree lives/enjoy a carefree lifestyle/ live without much concern/ live casually and freely [2 marks]
2) They ignore parental advice/ disregard guidance from parents/ refuse elders’ advice/pay no heed to parental counsel [2 marks]

PART C — LITERATURE (10 marks)

PENALTIES FOR QUESTION 5

• a. Deduct ½ mark for any grammatical/ expression error at each scoring point.
• b. Where a candidate gives two answers and one of them is wrong, award zero (0). If, however, both answers are correct, award full marks.
• c. An answer taken as a whole must make sense before it may be accepted for scoring.
• d. Award zero if a candidate spells a name, a literary device etc wrongly.

Question 5 Answers

• a. They are/were trying to drive away all evil spirits from the house, They are/were (purifying/ cleansing) (the house/ household/ family) from all (evil spirits/ ill luck/ unkind feelings) (which might have invaded their house during the past year). [1 mark]
• b. Stage direction(s) [1 mark]
• c. Under a photograph/on the / a calendar [1 mark]
• d. She becomes happy/hopeful/ cheerful; She is comforted / consoled [1 mark]
• e. The young girl’s/ The teen girl baby / The young girl / The (thin) teenage girl / The sachet water hawkers (sellers) [1 mark]
• f. Poverty/penury [1 mark]
• g. Osofopon S. B. Esamuah / Osofopon (½)/S. B. Esamuah (½) [1 mark]
• h. The mind [1 mark]
• i. It saved his life (when he cured the princess); He was allowed to marry the Princess (Bagyina). It helped him cure the princess (Bagyina of the snake bite) [1 mark]
• j. Personification [1 mark]

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